[Discuss] Prestige req for ruler changed?

[Thomas Dalton]

> I've often wondered if you only have one person truly eligible if then not
> refusing rulership (say if you're in a demo or republic and you aret the
> only person people can vote for) should be considered as abusing the game
> mechnics that are there. Does anyone else think the borders should be more
> fluid?

I don't understand.  If you have only one person eligible and they're
refusing rulership, then the people that are partially eligable (10
prestige, I think) become eligible.  If there aren't any of them
accepting rulership, the realm desolves into anarchy and everyone
becomes eligible.

What were you asking for?


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